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Post by Misfit Reindeer on Apr 21, 2015 8:21:31 GMT
In "Straight Dude Seeks Same", Jane Ward claims that heterosexuality is defined similar to "Blackness in the nineteenth century," with a "one drop system," in which "any same-sex sexual experience muddies the waters of heterosexuality at best, and marks one as either an open or repressed homosexual, at worst."
We see this attitude applied to MSM (men who have sex with men), bisexual individuals, and in individuals who identify as heterosexual who have sexual relationships with transgender people, among other places.
Here's what I'm wondering. Is it possible for an individual to identify as a sexuality while willingly performing sexual behaviors that seem to contradict their sexual identity? I'm all for people choosing labels they feel define them, so I personally believe that this is the case, but I was wondering what you all thought and why.
For example, you can be a heterosexual man who occasionally enjoys having sex with men. My reasoning is that sexual expression can be done without being sexually attracted towards that person, but preferring sex with men for other reasons such as bonding, sexual release when other options are unavailable, etc.
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Post by becbecmuffin on Apr 21, 2015 14:07:12 GMT
I mean I dont experience sexual attraction at all but I eenjoy sex and have it for a number of different reasons, so i think it's definitely possible for your sexuality to be different from your sexual expression. It just doesnt make sense for other people to try to define someone. If someone says they're straight, people should think of them as straight, no matter what they do. It's a matter of respecting that the person knows themself better than anyone else does and that if they're in the closet, there's a reason they haven't come out.
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Post by Misfit Reindeer on Apr 21, 2015 20:07:00 GMT
I completely forgot about asexuality when reading this article and now that I think about it, it's kind of strange that the author never touches on it at all, because that's a very legitimate example.
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Post by hailstorm on Apr 22, 2015 1:40:18 GMT
Also, someone can have differing sexual and romantic orientations. So someone who self identifies as heterosexual could be heteroromantic bisexual (romantically attracted to opposite gender, sexually attracted to same/ other genders), but might not know that this is a thing.
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Post by Misfit Reindeer on Apr 22, 2015 1:42:04 GMT
Here's the thing, though, they're not identifying as heteroromantic homosexual. They're identifying as hetero while performing sexual behaviors with men.
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Post by hailstorm on Apr 22, 2015 1:48:33 GMT
Yeah. But a lot of people wouldn't even know that heteroromantic homosexual was a thing. If they didnt know the label existed, they probably wouldn't identify with it and would just go with whatever was closest - and this could go either way here.
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Post by Misfit Reindeer on Apr 22, 2015 1:49:45 GMT
That is a very legitimate point.
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Post by hailstorm on Apr 23, 2015 0:20:23 GMT
I don't think that accounts for all of it though. Some of it, sure, but I'm trying to think of other reasoning.
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Onbestaand
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Post by Onbestaand on May 10, 2015 21:28:07 GMT
I immediately thought about asexuality here. We aces can have sex, can even enjoy sexual activities, so I think it's not different in any other sexuality.
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